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I found the following post on a food-related forum (here):

Farmed fish do have omega 3 in them. They have a chunk of omega 6 too so while they do have omega 3, they're not ideal for normalizing the ratio. However there is a case in which sardine flesh is being sold after the omega 3 has been extracted to make sardine oil. A good rule of thumb is that the saturated fat should be about a quarter or less of of the total fat if the tin doesn't specifically say that it has omega 3. If saturated fat is a higher percentage of the sardine, the omega 3 has been removed.

Is this information accurate?

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    While I think there are some good questions here, by having four different questions in your post makes it very broad. To avoid having it closed for that reason, I would suggest you narrow down which question you want answered, and combine/make other question posts for the remaining. – JohnP Jun 1 '15 at 14:46
  • @JohnP ok, thanks, I will separate the questions. – traveh Jun 1 '15 at 14:58

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