I am really confused about this matter. I've heard a lot of versions from doctors and on internet. To be more specific:
A pathologist that claimed to have worked with HIV positive patients for 10 years told me that female to male transmission has close to zero possibility. She insisted that straight men cannot contract HIV (unless there is a sore on their genitals), and women contract HIV from men who have had sex with men (but do not admit it).
A training pathologist told me that HIV transmission has less than 50% chance and all of that fuss is to urge people to use condoms.
There are articles all over the internet that say that HIV is most common to gay people and women and straight men are very unlikely to contract the virus.
When you get tested for HIV, the doctors tell you that it is very likely to contract the virus when performing unprotected intercourse, regardless of your sex or sexual preferences (straight men and women, gay men and women) a. if your partner does NOT take medication the chance is higher than 95% if I remember correctly and b. it is around 30-40% if the partner takes medication.
Can anyone tell me which of the above statements is valid?
NOTE: I strongly believe that people MUST use condoms regardless of how high or low are the chances of contacting STDs and I think every logical person would think the same.
NOTE 2: The above statements do not include transmission via syringe use and blood transfusions, with which the transmission rate is equal for all sexes.