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I've always wondered this one question: If in one liter of Coca-Cola there is a 30 sugarcubes equivallent, how is it possible for the fastfoods to make it from a little of powder?

So is the dissoluted sugar in a liquid actually equivallent to raw-eaten sugar from the medical point of view?

closed as unclear what you're asking by anongoodnurse, YviDe, Akshay Vasu, kenorb, Susan May 7 '16 at 23:37

Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

  • I'm not sure what "equivalent...from a medical point of view" means here. Please flag this if you decide to edit it to clarify. – Susan May 7 '16 at 23:39
  • @Susan I could express it as the difference in metabolism but I was affraid I wouldn't learn about any other important changes in body, so I chose to ask so that would be clear I'm not interested in psychological difference or the fact you for example eat dispersed sugar usually contained less sweat food (beverages). – Probably May 8 '16 at 5:37
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Diabetics when calculating insulin doses for a meal look at the carbohydrate content for the whole meal. It's not important if the sugars are taken in one mouthful, or dissolved and taken over the whole meal. So, to answer your question, the approach taken is that functionally it makes no difference.

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