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As a child I was diagnosed with ADD and put on Ritalin from a young age. As a child I use to have significant insomnia, but did not realize it was due to Ritalin until I finally stopped taking it much later, as I didn't realize my difficulty with sleeping was unusual or qualified as insomnia.

As an adult it seems as if I have an above-average tolerance to stimulants, especially considering I'm slim (if not short) and thus likely in in the lower 50th percentile for mass for males.

In particular I can drink a soda, or coffee, without any difficulty falling asleep or help 'waking up' when tired. I also find that no AD/HD medication appears to have a significant affect on me.

I'm wondering if early exposure to stimulant like Ritalin could have resulted in a higher tolerance to stimulants in general, or if I'm just crazy :).

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Yes, unfortunately, Ritalin produces a tolerance in individuals who take it.

In the conclusion of this double blind trial, the author notes,

Acute tolerance to methylphenidate appears to exist. This should be considered in the design of an optimal dosing regimen for the treatment of children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.

Acute tolerance to methylphenidate in the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder in children.

Addendum:

This might be a useful reference for ADHD in general: Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder: Diagnosis and Management of ADHD in Children, Young People and Adults.

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