there’s also pre-ejaculate to worry about, which does indeed contain sperm and can lead to pregnancy
Sexuality and health educators often warn individuals that pre-ejaculate might have sperm in it and thus could cause a pregnancy.
Theoretically this is true, as there might be sperm that are still “left over” in the urethra from a previous ejaculation earlier that day or earlier in that same sexual session (either because of masturbation or sexual activity with a partner). Thus if sperm are “left over” in the urethra and then a man’s Cowper’s glands release pre-ejaculatory fluid, and it comes forth to the tip of the penis during arousal, then there is a chance that some sperm could be carried in this fluid and get into his partner’s body, if they are having intercourse without a condom.
Is the description that sperm doesn't contain naturally in pre-cum but can only be contained in it when there was recent ejakulation accurate or is it also contained naturally?