The lymph node drainage of the stomach is via the pyloric and related lymph nodes. Either way, the supraclavicular node (Virchow's node) is not the first lymph node that drains the Stomach. According to Robbins and Cortran: Pathologic Basis of Disease, the Virchow node is a common site of metastasis. I checked Bailey's surgery textbook as well, and they did explain the other tumors- Krukenberg and Sister-Mary-Joseph nodules- as being due to the serosal infiltration of the original adenocarcinoma. This, however doesn't explain the supraclavicular lymph node involvement. Can anybody give me a reason for this?