If someone’s blood was taken to determine whether they’ve been using certain substances such as methylamphetamines, barbiturates, opiates etc., is the value of 0.00 ng/ml a reasonable indication of a negative result? Do non-users typically get such a result or are they expected to have a small nonzero value when measured in ng/ml? Does having 0.00 for every substance support the accusation that the report is fake?

Full report, in Russian: https://imgur.com/HsGcXnQ (publicly posted by the person in question, who is a politician)

  • The only substance I would be suspicious of a 0.0 reading would be ethanol because it's produced by the body naturally, but ethanol wasn't tested. I can't imagine any legitimate reason why the substances tested would show >0.0. – Carey Gregory Apr 7 '19 at 15:06

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.