I have been reading lately about injaculation as a mean of preventing the ejaculation during an orgasm, by applying pressure on a particular spot of the urethra in order to stop the semen.

This seems equivalent to retrograde ejaculation, where (whatever the reason) the semen is redirected to the bladder.

However it seems sometimes claimed that injaculation and retrograde ejaculation are two different things and that with injaculation the sperm doesn't go to the bladder.

Can it be so, and in this case what happens to the semen?

  • This question was originally posted on Biology.SE and about to be closed, people suggesting this was a better place.
    – rulsbin
    Dec 31, 2017 at 10:56
  • 1
    That article is a load of rubbish.
    – Carey Gregory
    Dec 31, 2017 at 16:07
  • I thought it was better to source the claim but you're right, it's probably useless, I removed it and rephrased.
    – rulsbin
    Jan 2, 2018 at 9:15
  • "Retrograde ejaculation" isn't just equivalent to Injaculation, it's the medical/scientific term to it. So I'm afraid this question is pointless. Mar 4, 2018 at 11:05


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