5

Can a woman become pregnant if you don't use a condom, only from "before-sperm liquid"? It's not sperm. This liquid comes when a man is aroused.

8

This "pre-ejaculate" that you are talking about does contain a very small amount of sperm, and can absolutely cause pregnancy. To be clear, the alkaline fluid that comes out as the pre-ejaculate is made in Cowper's glands, which do not produce sperm. However, sperm may be present from a prior ejaculation and come out as part of the pre-ejaculate.

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3564677/

The article above goes into some detail. Basically, there is a 41% chance of the content having sperm, and a 37% chance that the sperm it contains are motile - enough to swim upstream and potentially fertilize an egg.

Actual fertilization depends on a lot of things. However, if you do this enough, the odds of pregnancy increase.

  • Please clarify that, pre-ejaculate fluid does not contain motile sperm cells, however, the urethra may contain "left-over" sperm cells from prior ejaculate. Assuming the indivdual has no conditions affecting his ability to ejaculate (such as retrogade ejaculation) all sperm is realised via, ejaculation within the semen and furtherly, when he urinates, flushing the urethra. – user19679 Dec 20 '16 at 1:32
  • Yes, that is correct. The alkaline fluid that comes out as the pre-ejaculate is made in Cowper's glands, which do not produce sperm. However, sperm may be present from a prior ejaculation and come out as part of the pre-ejaculate. – OverlordvI Dec 20 '16 at 1:37
  • 1
    @OverlordvI A quick edit can clear it up. Just make sure she knows that's the case and that the additions I recommended are included, also. Otherwise it'd be inaccurate. Thank you :) – user19679 Dec 20 '16 at 1:47

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.